What is the correct procedure for recovering a dropped table when DROPPED TABLE RECOVERY has been enabled and the database must remain online?
A. Run the RECOVER DATABASE command with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the database and recover the droppedtable.
B. Run the RECOVER DATABASE command with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the appropriate table space and recover thedropped table.
C. Restore the database from a backup image that was taken before the table was dropped; run the ROLLFORWARD DATABASE command withthe RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the
database and recover the dropped table.
D. Restore the appropriate table space from a backup image that was taken before the table was dropped; run the ROLLFORWARD DATABASEcommand with the RECOVER DROPPED TABLE option to restore the appropriate table space and recover the dropped table.
Which statement regarding SECADM authority is true?
A. The instance owner has SECADM authority by default.
B. PUBLIC cannot receive SECADM authority, either directly or indirectly.
C. Only users with SECADM authority are allowed to grant the CONNECT database authority to others.
D. The SECADM_GROUP database manager configuration parameter determines who has SECADM authority by default.
Which command is used to export connectivity configuration information from a file known as a configuration profile?
A. db2ca
B. db2cfexp
C. db2cfimp
D. db2cfgexp
A DB2 for AIX server has two instances named DEV and PROD. Each instance contains a database named ACCOUNTS and a database named PAYROLL. What can be done to prevent a DB2 Discovery operation from seeing the DEV instance and its databases?
A. Set the DISCOVER_DB database manager configuration parameter for the DEV instance to DISABLE.
B. Set the DISCOVER DB2 administration server (DAS) configuration parameter on the client to DISABLE.
C. Set the DISCOVER DB2 administration server (DAS) configuration parameter on the server to DISABLE.
D. Set the DISCOVER_INST database manager configuration parameter for the DEV instance to DISABLE.
Which user-managed file system is required for DB2 pureScale deployments?
A. JFS2
B. NTFS
C. HPFS
D. GPFS
How is the time that an agent waits for log records to be flushed to disk calculated?
A. LOG_END_TIME divided by TOTAL_COMMITS
B. LOG_WAIT_TIME divided by TOTAL_COMMITS
C. LOG_WRITE_TIME divided by TOTAL_COMMITS
D. LOG_FLUSH_TIME divided by TOTAL_COMMITS
Which DB2 product/feature should be used if you want to enable client reroute for transactions and connections based on workload?
A. pureScale
B. Advanced Server Edition
C. Data Partitioning Feature
D. Enterprise Server Edition
Which is a valid statement about the Row and Column Access Control (RCAC) feature?
A. Users with SECADM authority are exempt from RCAC rules.
B. The RCAC feature uses a subset of Label Based Access Control (LBAC) functionality.
C. RCAC is a more powerful security mechanism than Label Based Access Control (LBAC).
D. When a result set is restricted due to the RCAC rules defined on a table, no warnings or errors are returned.
The following statement is run:
Which statement about the ACCT_BALANCE column is true?
A. Values stored in the ACCT_BALANCE column are visible to all users.
B. Values stored in the ACCT_BALANCE column are not visible to any user.
C. Values stored in the ACCT_BALANCE column are only visible to users with the ACCOUNTING role.
D. Values stored in the ACCT_BALANCE column are not visible to users with the ACCOUNTING role.
Which statement about primary keys is true?
A. A table can have multiple primary keys.
B. A primary key accepts one, and only one, NULL value.
C. A unique index, with matching columns of the primary key, must be created before a primary key can be created.
D. A unique bidirectional index is automatically created for the columns of the primary key, if an appropriate unique index does not already exist.